Is the following statement valid according to Euler's formula? Cos(2npi) = (-1)^2n

QUESTION POSTED AT 29/05/2020 - 12:55 AM

Answered by admin AT 29/05/2020 - 12:55 AM

Provided that n is an integer, the statement is true.


Meanwhile, Euler's formula gives us


and we know that \sin2n\pi=0 for all integers n, while \cos2n\pi=1.
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